12TH BIO ZOOLOGY UNIT WISE FREE ONLINE TESTS | CHAPTER 3 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH | INTERNAL MCQ | ENGLISH MEDIUM.

12TH BIO ZOOLOGY UNIT WISE FREE ONLINE TESTS | CHAPTER 3 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH | INTERNAL MCQ | ENGLISH MEDIUM.

1. Which programme was initiated in India in 1951 to attain total reproductive health as a social goal?

A) Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH)

B) Family Planning Programme

C) Janani Suraksha Yojana

D) National Health Mission

2. What is the prenatal technique used to detect chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus, which is often misused for sex determination?

A) Ultrasound Scanning

B) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)

C) Amniocentesis

D) Foetoscopy

3. The act enacted to ban the identification of sex and prevent the use of prenatal diagnostic techniques for selective abortion is known as:

A) POCSO Act

B) MTP Act

C) PCPNDT Act (1994)

D) RCH Act

4. Which of the following is a natural method of birth control?

A) Condoms

B) Lactational amenorrhoea

C) Oral contraceptives

D) Copper T

5. 'Saheli', a contraceptive pill developed by CDRI, Lucknow, contains a non-steroidal preparation called:

A) Progesterone

B) Estrogen

C) Centchroman

D) LNG 20

6. What is the surgical sterilization procedure for males called?

A) Tubectomy

B) Hysterectomy

C) Oophorectomy

D) Vasectomy

7. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered relatively safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?

A) 8 weeks

B) 12 weeks

C) 20 weeks

D) 24 weeks

8. Which of the following is a bacterial Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI)?

A) Genital Herpes

B) Hepatitis-B

C) Syphilis

D) AIDS

9. Cervical cancer is primarily caused by which sexually transmitted virus?

A) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

B) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

C) Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

D) Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)

10. The ART method where sperm and eggs are allowed to unite outside the body in a laboratory is called:

A) GIFT

B) ZIFT

C) IUI

D) IVF

11. What is the term for the inability to conceive or produce children even after unprotected sexual cohabitation?

A) Sterility

B) Infertility

C) Impotence

D) Contraception

12. In the ZIFT procedure, the zygote or embryo with up to how many blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tube?

A) 4 blastomeres

B) 8 blastomeres

C) 16 blastomeres

D) 32 blastomeres

13. Which of these is a copper-releasing IUD?

A) Lippes loop

B) Progestasert

C) Multiload 375

D) LNG-20

14. The causative agent for Syphilis is:

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B) Treponema pallidum

C) Chlamydia trachomatis

D) Herpes simplex virus

15. The transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who can provide a suitable environment for fertilization is called:

A) ZIFT

B) IUT

C) ICSI

D) GIFT

16. What does the slogan 'Naam iruvar namakku iruvar' promote?

A) Gender equality

B) Child health

C) Population control (small family norm)

D) Breast feeding

17. Which barrier method of contraception also provides protection from STDs like AIDS?

A) Diaphragm

B) Cervical cap

C) Vault

D) Condom

18. The ART method that involves directly injecting a single sperm into the cytoplasm of an egg is:

A) IUI

B) IVF

C) ICSI

D) GIFT

19. What is the average foetal heart rate during late pregnancy?

A) 70-90 beats per minute

B) 90-110 beats per minute

C) 120-160 beats per minute

D) 170-200 beats per minute

20. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a:

A) Bacterium

B) Virus

C) Fungus

D) Protozoan

21. Which hormone's high concentration in a mother's blood during breast-feeding may prevent the menstrual cycle?

A) Estrogen

B) Progesterone

C) Prolactin

D) LH

22. The condition defined as the absence of spermatozoa in the ejaculate semen is known as:

A) Oligospermia

B) Azoospermia

C) Asthenospermia

D) Teratospermia

23. What is the primary purpose of a PAP smear test?

A) To diagnose breast cancer

B) To detect HIV

C) To screen for cervical cancer

D) To check for infertility

24. Coitus interruptus is a method of contraception that falls under which category?

A) Barrier method

B) Chemical method

C) Natural method

D) Hormonal method

25. The transfer of an embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus is called:

A) ZIFT

B) GIFT

C) Embryo Transfer (ET) or IUT

D) ICSI

26. Which of the following is a hormone-releasing IUD?

A) CuT

B) Multiload 375

C) Progestasert

D) Lippes loop

27. What is the term for 'killing the female child after her birth'?

A) Female foeticide

B) Female infanticide

C) Gender discrimination

D) Sex selection

28. The causative agent for Genital Warts is:

A) Herpes simplex virus

B) Human papilloma virus (HPV)

C) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

D) Chlamydia trachomatis

29. Amniocentesis is generally performed between which weeks of pregnancy?

A) 5th and 10th weeks

B) 10th and 14th weeks

C) 15th and 20th weeks

D) 21st and 25th weeks

30. A condition where a woman is born with ovaries but does not have a functional uterus is called:

A) Turner Syndrome

B) Endometriosis

C) Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

D) Mayer-Rokitansky syndrome

31. What is the primary function of oral contraceptive pills?

A) To kill sperms in the vagina

B) To prevent ovulation by inhibiting FSH and LH

C) To block the entry of sperm into the uterus

D) To increase phagocytosis of sperm

32. Which of these is NOT a bacterial STI?

A) Gonorrhoea

B) Syphilis

C) Chlamydiasis

D) Genital herpes

33. The technique involving the removal of a small sample of placental tissue for testing chromosomal abnormalities is called:

A) Amniocentesis

B) Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS)

C) Foetoscopy

D) Ultrasound

34. What is 'Surrogacy'?

A) Donating an egg for fertilization

B) Donating sperm for insemination

C) A woman agreeing to carry a pregnancy for another person

D) The process of freezing embryos

35. The rhythm method of contraception is based on avoiding coitus around which day of the menstrual cycle?

A) 1st day

B) 7th day

C) 14th day

D) 28th day

36. Which of the following is considered a permanent birth control method for women?

A) IUD insertion

B) Vasectomy

C) Oral pills

D) Tubectomy

37. The causative agent for Gonorrhoea is:

A) Treponema pallidum

B) Chlamydia trachomatis

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D) Human immunodeficiency virus

38. Cryopreservation is a technique used in ART for:

A) Stimulating ovulation

B) Freezing excess embryos for future use

C) Retrieving eggs from the ovary

D) Injecting sperm into an egg

39. Which of these is a non-medicated IUD?

A) Progestasert

B) CuT

C) Lippes loop

D) LNG-20

40. The statutory marriageable age for females and males in India is:

A) 16 for females, 18 for males

B) 18 for females, 18 for males

C) 18 for females, 21 for males

D) 21 for females, 21 for males

41. Which of the following is a symptom of the tertiary stage of Syphilis?

A) Painless ulcer on external genitalia

B) Skin lesions and rashes

C) Appearance of chronic ulcers on the nose and palate (gummas)

D) Pain and pus discharge in the genital tract

42. What is the main purpose of IUDs (Intrauterine Devices)?

A) To inhibit ovulation

B) To block the fallopian tubes

C) To increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus

D) To kill the ovum

43. The ART procedure where semen is collected and introduced into the uterus through the vagina is called:

A) IVF

B) GIFT

C) ZIFT

D) Intra-Uterine Insemination (IUI)

44. Which vitamin is known as the anti-sterility vitamin?

A) Vitamin A

B) Vitamin C

C) Vitamin D

D) Vitamin E

45. Candidiasis is a fungal STI caused by:

A) Trichomonas vaginalis

B) Candida albicans

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D) Chlamydia trachomatis

46. What is the primary risk factor for cervical cancer besides having multiple sexual partners?

A) High-fat diet

B) Prolonged use of contraceptive pills

C) Lack of exercise

D) Alcohol consumption

47. The World Population Day is observed on:

A) 1st December

B) 11th July

C) 8th March

D) 7th April

48. Which of these is a chemical barrier method of contraception?

A) Condom

B) Diaphragm

C) Foaming tablets

D) Coitus interruptus

49. Micro-Testicular Sperm Extraction (TESE) is a procedure used to treat:

A) Female infertility

B) Blocked fallopian tubes

C) Male infertility (Azoospermia)

D) Uterine fibroids

50. The National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) was established in which year?

A) 1951

B) 1971

C) 1992

D) 2005

51. Which of the following is NOT a major task carried out under the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes?

A) Introducing sex education in schools

B) Creating awareness about care for pregnant women

C) Promoting large families for economic growth

D) Educating couples about available birth control methods

52. Female foeticide refers to:

A) Killing the female child after her birth

B) Aborting the female in the mother's womb

C) Discrimination against girls in education

D) Neglecting the nutritional needs of a female child

53. Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are what type of contraceptive method?

A) Hormonal barrier

B) Chemical barrier

C) Natural method

D) Mechanical barrier

54. An abnormal foetal heart rate may indicate that the foetus is not getting enough:

A) Nutrients

B) Oxygen

C) Space

D) Warmth

55. Which of these is a potential cause of infertility in men?

A) Uterine fibroids

B) Endometriosis

C) Undescended testes

D) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

56. In IVF, after fertilization, the zygote is allowed to divide to form an 8-celled blastomere and then transferred into the:

A) Fallopian tube

B) Uterus

C) Cervix

D) Vagina

57. Hepatitis-B is a viral STI that primarily affects which organ?

A) Lungs

B) Heart

C) Kidneys

D) Liver

58. The surgical procedure tubectomy involves cutting and tying the:

A) Uterus

B) Ovaries

C) Fallopian tubes

D) Vas deferens

59. What is the main component of the amniotic fluid sample taken during amniocentesis that is used for analysis?

A) Maternal blood cells

B) Foetal hormones

C) Cells shed from the foetus

D) Placental tissue

60. Which of these STIs cannot be completely cured but its symptoms can be controlled by antiviral medications?

A) Syphilis

B) Gonorrhoea

C) Genital herpes

D) Chlamydiasis

61. The 'RMNCH+A' approach is an integrated approach for health concerning reproductive, maternal, new born, child and what other group?

A) Adult

B) Adolescent

C) Aged

D) Athlete

62. In the rhythm method, coitus is avoided during the fertile period because the ovum survives for about how long?

A) 12 hours

B) 24 hours (1 day)

C) 48 hours (2 days)

D) 72 hours (3 days)

63. Which type of IUD increases the viscosity of the cervical mucus, thereby preventing sperm from entering the cervix?

A) Copper releasing IUDs

B) Non-medicated IUDs

C) Hormone-releasing IUDs

D) All of the above

64. MTP performed illegally by unqualified quacks can be:

A) Safe and effective

B) Inexpensive

C) Unsafe and potentially fatal

D) Psychologically beneficial

65. Which of these is a symptom of Chlamydiasis?

A) Jaundice and liver failure

B) Hard outgrowths on external genitalia

C) Painless ulcer on genitalia

D) Urithritis and endocervicitis

66. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), uterine fibroids, and endometriosis are common causes of infertility in:

A) Men

B) Women

C) Both men and women

D) Neither men nor women

67. The 4-D ultrasound technology allows the health care provider to:

A) See a flat picture of the baby

B) See the width, height, and depth of images

C) Visualize the unborn baby moving in real time

D) Listen to the foetal heart rate only

68. Breast self-examination is recommended to be done monthly once after which period?

A) Before the menstrual cycle

B) During the menstrual cycle

C) After the 1st week of the menstrual cycle

D) Any time of the month

69. The World AIDS Day is observed on:

A) 1st December

B) 11th July

C) 31st October

D) 14th November

70. In vasectomy, which tubes are cut and tied to prevent the entry of sperm into the urethra?

A) Fallopian tubes

B) Ureters

C) Seminiferous tubules

D) Vas deferens

71. What is the primary reason for the statutory ban on amniocentesis in India?

A) It is a very risky procedure for the mother

B) It is too expensive for the general public

C) Its misuse for sex determination leading to female foeticide

D) It is not an accurate diagnostic tool

72. The phenomenon where the menstrual cycle is absent during the period of intense lactation following parturition is called:

A) Menopause

B) Amenorrhoea

C) Lactational amenorrhoea

D) Dysmenorrhea

73. Which of the following is NOT a method of Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)?

A) IVF

B) Tubectomy

C) GIFT

D) ZIFT

74. Syphilis and gonorrhoea are commonly called:

A) National diseases

B) Endemic diseases

C) International diseases

D) Congenital diseases

75. For women above the age of 40, which screening method is recommended for early diagnosis of breast cancer?

A) Ultrasound

B) CT Scan

C) Mammograms

D) PAP Smear

76. The sex ratio is defined as the ratio of:

A) Children to adults in a population

B) Males to females in a population

C) Literate to illiterate people in a population

D) Urban to rural population

77. In the context of contraception, what does 'continuous abstinence' mean?

A) Avoiding coitus only during the fertile period

B) Withdrawing the penis before ejaculation

C) Not having coitus for a defined period

D) Using a barrier method every time

78. Which hormone injection is given 34 to 37 hours before egg retrieval in an IVF cycle?

A) FSH

B) LH

C) Prolactin

D) hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin)

79. Which of the following is a symptom of AIDS?

A) Painless ulcers on genitalia

B) Prolonged fever and weight reduction

C) Jaundice and stomach pain

D) Hard outgrowths on the perianal region

80. Anorexia, a psychiatric eating disorder, can be a cause of infertility due to:

A) High body fat

B) Low body fat

C) High protein intake

D) Vitamin deficiency

81. The government of India legalized MTP in which year?

A) 1951

B) 1961

C) 1971

D) 1981

82. Which of the following is NOT a viral STI?

A) Genital warts

B) Hepatitis-B

C) AIDS

D) Trichomoniasis

83. The primary stage of syphilis is characterized by:

A) Formation of a painless ulcer (chancre)

B) Skin rashes and fever

C) Chronic ulcers on the nose and palate

D) Mental disorders and heart problems

84. What is the main advantage of using condoms over other contraceptive methods?

A) They are the most effective method

B) They are permanent

C) They also safeguard the user from STIs

D) They do not require a doctor's prescription

85. The abbreviation 'ART' in reproductive health stands for:

A) Artificial Reproductive Technique

B) Assisted Reproductive Technology

C) Advanced Reproductive Treatment

D) Active Response Therapy

86. A foetoscope is used to monitor the:

A) Foetal brain activity

B) Foetal heart rate

C) Foetal movements

D) Foetal lung development

87. Which of these is a cause of infertility related to lifestyle?

A) Inherited gene mutations

B) Malformation of the cervix

C) Heavy use of alcohol and tobacco

D) Tumours in the pituitary gland

88. An ideal contraceptive should:

A) Be expensive and difficult to obtain

B) Interfere with the sexual drive

C) Be user friendly and easily available

D) Have many side effects

89. The 'test tube baby' program refers to which ART technique?

A) IUI

B) GIFT

C) IVF-ET

D) Surrogacy

90. The incubation period for AIDS can be as long as:

A) 2 to 6 days

B) 1 to 8 months

C) 1 to 2 years

D) More than 10 years

91. Which government program in Tamilnadu does free screening for cervical and breast cancer?

A) RCH

B) Janani Suraksha Yojana

C) TNHSP (Tamilnadu health systems project)

D) NACO

92. The primary prevention for cervical cancer begins with HPV vaccination of girls aged:

A) 5-8 years

B) 9-13 years

C) 14-18 years

D) 19-25 years

93. What is the success rate of IUDs as a method of contraception in India?

A) 50-60%

B) 70-80%

C) 85-90%

D) 95-99%

94. A combined oral contraceptive pill most commonly contains synthetic:

A) Prolactin and FSH

B) Progesterone and Estrogen

C) LH and hCG

D) Only Progesterone

95. The introduction of sex education in schools is a task under which programme?

A) National Literacy Mission

B) Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH)

C) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

D) Mid-day Meal Scheme

96. What is a 'varicocoele', mentioned as a cause of infertility?

A) A block in the fallopian tube

B) A tumour in the pituitary

C) Swollen veins in the scrotum

D) An underdeveloped ovary

97. The first step in an IVF treatment cycle is typically:

A) Egg retrieval

B) Embryo transfer

C) Fertilization

D) Ovarian stimulation

98. Which of the following is a possible symptom of gonorrhoea in males?

A) Hair loss

B) Jaundice

C) Burning sensation during urination

D) Swollen joints

99. Who is credited with the discovery of sex hormones?

A) Louis Pasteur

B) Robert Koch

C) Alexander Fleming

D) Adolf Butenandt

100. Abortion during the second trimester is considered more risky because:

A) The foetus is too small

B) It is illegal

C) The foetus becomes intimately associated with the maternal tissue

D) It has severe psychological consequences

101. High prolactin concentration in a lactating mother's blood may prevent the menstrual cycle by suppressing the release of which hormone from the hypothalamus?

A) GnRH (Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone)

B) FSH

C) LH

D) Estrogen

102. Condoms, a barrier method of contraception, are made of which of the following materials?

A) Polyurethane and Latex

B) Latex and Lambskin

C) Polyurethane and Lambskin

D) All of the above

103. What is the primary mechanism of action for copper-releasing IUDs like Cu T-380 A?

A) They prevent ovulation

B) They suppress sperm motility

C) They thicken cervical mucus

D) They block the fallopian tubes

104. What is the typical incubation period for Genital Herpes?

A) 2-21 days

B) 30-80 days

C) 1-8 months

D) 10-90 days

105. The incubation period for Syphilis ranges from:

A) 2 to 5 days

B) 2 to 3 weeks

C) 10 to 90 days

D) 1 to 8 months

106. The primary stage of Syphilis is characterized by the formation of what on the external genitalia?

A) A painless ulcer

B) Painful sores

C) Hard outgrowths (warts)

D) Skin rashes

107. Which of the following is a symptom of the secondary stage of Syphilis?

A) Chronic ulcers on the nose

B) Skin lesions and swollen joints

C) Mental disorder

D) Painless ulcer on genitalia

108. The causative agent for Lymphogranuloma venereum is:

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B) Treponema pallidum

C) Chlamydia trachomatis

D) Herpes simplex virus

109. The incubation period for Hepatitis-B is:

A) 2-21 days

B) 30-80 days

C) 1-8 months

D) 4-28 days

110. Which of the following is a symptom of the fungal STI, Candidiasis?

A) Vaginal itching or soreness

B) Jaundice

C) Painless ulcer

D) Hair loss

111. Primary prevention of cervical cancer can be achieved with HPV vaccination of girls, ideally before they become sexually active, at what age?

A) 6-8 years

B) 9-13 years

C) 14-17 years

D) 18-21 years

112. Besides prolonged use of contraceptive pills, what is another major risk factor for cervical cancer?

A) Having multiple sexual partners

B) A diet low in fiber

C) Regular exercise

D) Avoiding tobacco

113. Which psychiatric eating disorder, characterized by a fear of gaining weight and low body fat, is a potential cause of infertility in women?

A) Bulimia

B) Binge eating disorder

C) Anorexia

D) Pica

114. In an IVF cycle, what is the purpose of administering an hCG injection 34 to 37 hours before the scheduled procedure?

A) To prepare the eggs for retrieval

B) To stimulate the uterine lining

C) To prevent multiple pregnancies

D) To suppress sperm production

115. For successful fertilization in an IVF procedure, approximately how many motile sperms are needed for each egg?

A) 100-1,000

B) 1,000-5,000

C) 5,000-10,000

D) 10,000-100,000

116. In which ART method is a zygote of up to 8 blastomeres transferred to the fallopian tube by laparoscopy?

A) ZIFT

B) GIFT

C) IUT

D) ICSI

117. What is the purpose of performing ultrasonography in the first trimester of pregnancy?

A) For dating the pregnancy

B) For determination of the number of foetuses

C) For assessment of early pregnancy complications

D) All of the above

118. What key advantage does 3-D ultrasound offer over the standard 2-D ultrasound?

A) It shows the baby moving in real-time

B) It allows the provider to see width, height, and depth

C) It uses no radiation

D) It is less uncomfortable for the mother

119. A foetoscope is an instrument primarily used to:

A) Monitor the foetal heart rate

B) Take a sample of amniotic fluid

C) View the foetus in 4-D

D) Diagnose chromosomal abnormalities

120. The voluntary or intentional termination of a pregnancy in a non-surgical way is referred to as:

A) Spontaneous abortion

B) Surgical sterilisation

C) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

D) Infertility treatment

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